Free Nurse Licensure Exam Reviewer PDF - Best Reviewer

General Information

This Philippines Nurses Licensure Examination consists of five (5) parts namely:

1. Nursing Practice I Basic Foundation of Nursing and Professional Nursing Practice,
2. Nursing Practice II Community Health Nursing and Care of the Mother and Child,
3. Nursing Practice III Care of Clients with Physiological and Psychosocial Alternation (Part A),
4. Nursing Practice IV Care of Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alteration (Part B)
5. Nursing including Practice V Care of Clients with Physiologic and Psychosocial Alterations (Part C).

The test draw basic knowledge, skills and attitudes in the major of subject areas i.e. Fundamentals of Nursing including Professional Adjustments, Maternal and Child Nursing, Community Health and Communicable Diseases Nursing, Nursing of  Adolescents, Adults and Aged, and Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing.
  The following areas of knowledge will be integrated in each of the above-named Subject areas.

• Anatomy and Physiology
• Nutrition and Diet Therapy
• Pathophysiology
• Parasitology & Microbiology
• Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Nursing Process serves as the framework in the nursing care of individuals, families, population groups & communities in various stages of development in Health care setting. The focus of nursing care is the promotion of health, prevention of illness, curative & rehabilitative aspects of care, alleviation of suffering & when recovery is not possible towards a peaceful death.

The examination will test competencies in relation to the eleven (11) key areas of responsibility contained in the Competency Standards of Nursing Practice in the Philippines. These key areas are categorized as follows:

I. PATIENT CARE COMPETENCIES
   
    1. Safe and Quality Nursing Care
    2. Communication
    3. Collaboration and Teamwork
    4. Health Education

II. EMPOWERING COMPETENCIES

    5. Legal Responsibilities
    6. Ethico-Moral-Spiritual Responsibilities
    7. Personal and Professional Development

III. ENABLING COMPETENCIES
 
    8. Management of Resource & Environment
    9. Records Management

IV. ENHANCING COMPETENCIES

     10. Research
     11. Quality Improvement

GENERAL INSTRUCTION TO EXAMINEES 

• Report to the Test Center before 6:30am on the first day of examination 
• To verify your room and seat number.
• Late examinees will not be admitted.
• Attend to your personal needs before the start of examination in every subject.
• No examine will be allowed to go out of the examination room while the examination is in progress.
• Always put your answer sheet on top of the armchair while taking the examination.
• Stop answering the test questions at the end of the time allotted for the subject. Arrange your test papers as follows:

1. Notice of Admission
2. Answer Sheet
3. Test Questionnaire

• Do not leave the room until:

1. Your answer sheet and test question set are received by the room watchers,
2. You have signed, indicated the time and set (A or B) on the examinees Record Of Attendance, and
3. The lower portion of your Notice of Admission (Certification on the Receipts of Test Papers) is signed by the Room watchers and returned to you.

Instructions:

1. Examinees should report before 6:30 in the morning every examination day, LATE EXAMINESS WILL NOT BE ADMITTED.

2. Bring the following: Notice of Admission (NOA), Official Receipt, pencils no.1 or 2, black ball pens, metered-stamped window mailing envelope, long brown and long plastic envelopes.

3. CELLULAR PHONES AND OTHER ELECTRONIC GADGET ARE STRICTLY PROHIBITED.

4. Wear the prescribed dress code.

ATTIRE:

• Clinical Uniform with shoes and white socks but without nameplate, school insignia/logo and pin or School Uniform.

• Clinical Uniform with white shoes and white stockings but without, nameplates, school insignia/ logo and pin or School Uniform.

• White Clinical Scrub Suit

Bring the following on examination day:

• Notice of Admission
• Official Receipt
• One piece metered- stamped window mailing envelope
• Two or more pencils (No. 1 or No. 2)
• Ball pens with Black ink Only
• One piece long brown envelope
• One piece long transparent/plastic envelope (for keeping your valuables and other allowed items)
• Non-Programmable Calculators

Prohibited Acts inside the Examination Room

• Accepting or receiving anything, including food from any person while the examination is in progress.
• Giving money, food, or any favor and other consideration to the Room Watchers and other examination personnel.
• Loitering, talking, or discussing your answers inside the room or along the corridor while the examination is in progress.
• Putting any of the following markings on your answer sheets: name, seat for in the test questions number, unnecessary words or phrases, strokes, dots or any other marks not called.

Penalties:

1. Placing of name in the space provided for the subject of the examination shall be, aside from the cancellation of the examination papers, suspension from taking the examination for one (1) year.

2. Multiple markings shall be cancellation of the examinees examination and suspension from taking the examination for two (2) years.

• Taking out the examination room test questions used or pages thereof copying, and/or divulging or making known the nature or content of any examination question or answer to any individual or entity.
• Copying or referring to any solution, answer or work of another examinee or allowing anyone to copy or refer to your work, helping or asking help from any person or communication with anyone by means of words, signs gestures, codes and other similar acts which enable you to exchange, impart or acquire relevant information.
• Bringing inside the examination rooms the following: books, notes, review materials and other printed materials containing principles or excerpts thereof, coded data/information/formula which are relevant to or connected with the examination subject, PROGRAMMABLE CALCULATORS, CELLULAR PHONES, beeper, portable personal computers or other similar gadgets/devices. The act shall be considered cheating and/or act of dishonesty and shall be ground for the cancellation of your examinations  (PRC Resolution No. 463 dated November 27, 1996).

Maintain discipline at all times, any misconduct or irregularity on your part or any violation of the examination rules and regulations and instructions will be sufficient cause for the cancellation of your examination papers and your debarment from taking any future licensure examination.

Do not bring bags of any kind in the examination room. Keep allowed items and valuables inside your plastic envelope. PRC will not answerable for lost items
 

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Nurse Licensure Examination
Integrated Comprehensive Test I

Instruction: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

Use pencil no.1 only.

Situation 1: Man is a biopsychosocial and spiritual being.

1. Maslow’s need theory provided conceptual framework for:
 
2. Which statement about the hierarchy of basic human needs is incorrect?
 
3. What factor most influence prioritization of client’s needs:
  4. These are characteristics of individuals who have achieved self-actualization, except:
 
5. The most important objective to keep in mind when measuring your nursing care is:
 
Situation 2: You have chosen nursing as a career. Under-standing nursing as a profession will help you protect the image of nursing in public.

6. Nursing is best defined as a profession that:
7. What nursing is and ought to be is embodies in: 8. Which of the following statements is a most important characteristic of professional nursing: 9. Safe nursing practice requires: 10. Nurses demonstrate professional service and utilized critical thinking and decision making through:
Situation 3: A sense of history gives you better understanding of nursing as profession.

11. Which of the following is the most distinguishing characteristics of a profession:
12. To prepare for professional practice in the next century, you should:
13. The most important specific characteristic of a true professional nurse is:
14. What is the most important contribution or religion to the practice of nursing?
15. Thrust of our government for social program is globalization. For nursing, this means:
Situation 4: These are complications of labor and delivery.

16. Maternal death due to postpartal hemorrhage in many instances is caused by sheer negligence of the health care provider. The nurse is aware that postpartal hemorrhage is in excess:
17. Patients with postpartal hemorrhage must be closely watched. The nurse’s assessment should include:

1. Retained placental fragments
2. Lack of blood coagulation
3. Uterine atony and hypovolemic shock
4. Laceration of genital tract

 A. 1,2,3
B. 2,3,4
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,3,4

18. Nursing interventions for retained placenta would include:

A. Uterine compression
B. Vaginal packing
C. Uterine massage and manual removal placenta
D. Administer stimulants

19. Mother who is hemorrhaging as a result of uterine atony requires that Pitocin ban be administered rapidly through I.V. The nurse recognizes however, that a bolus of Pitocin is not given because it can cause:

A. Hypertension
B. Shock
C. Dyspnea
D. Hypotension

20. Tara is hemorrhaging 8 hours following abrupt delivery of a9lbs, 8 oz. infant. The nurse has change her pad every 10mins. And each pad weighs about 10 grams. She calculates blood loss per hour to be:

A. 80ml/hr.
B. 15ml/hr.
C. 60ml/hr.
D. 40ml/hr.

Situation 5: This pertains in adaptation of the newborn:

21. The nurse in the nursery prepare a 24-hour old newborn for discharge. She assesses the respiratory status and expects to find at this time the respiration to be:

A. Shallow and regular 
B. Grunting
C. Irregular in rate and depth
D. With crackle on auscultation

22. One day after discharge, parents were alarmed when they observed that their baby hold his breath for a few seconds and seemingly has stopped breathing. The nurse observed and confirmed the parent’s findings and does which of these:

A. Reassure parents that this is an expected pattern of a newborn
B. Call the physician immediately
C. Bring the newborn to the clinic
D. Inform parents to ignore this observation as their baby is healthy

23. The nurses assess the respiratory status of the newborn during the rest period between the first and second periods of reactivity. She would notify the doctor of which of these findings:

A. Respiratory  rate averaging 65 to 70 per minute
B. Intervals of apnea of less than or 5 equal to seconds
C. Easy and quiet respiration
D. Crackles upon auscultation

24. The baby has been delivered. The nurse recognizes vital measurements to a newborn which provides data about intra-uterine nutrition and fetal growth. In measuring full-term newborn, she expects:

A. Head circumference 13 inches
B. Head circumference approximates the abdominal circumference
C. Chest circumference = 1 inch larger than head circumference
D. Weight 9 lbs. 12 ozs.

25. A morning duty nurse in the nursery prepares the formula or feeding. This is an opportuned time to assess the newborn. The nurse would note which of these finding of effective newborn feeding behavior:

A. Shows signs of hunger to feed at about every 3 to 4 hours
B. Sleeps through the night after a week
C. Pains about 1 to 2 oz. per week
D. Sleeps for half an hour to one hour after feeding

Situation 6: At the health center, an anxious mother asks you if her 6-month old daughter is suffering from developmental delay. As you assess the patient, your knowledge on growth and development is challenged.

26. Growth and development in a child progress in the following ways, except:

A. From the general to the specific
B. From the trunk to the tip of extremities or proximodistally
C. From head to toe or cephalocaudal
D. From cognitive to psychosexual

27. On examination of the child, you note for:

A. Doubling of birth weight
B. An open posterior fontanel
C. Tripling the birth weight
D. Doubling the birth length

28. You then test the motor skills of the child, she should be able to:

A. Sit-up without assistance
B. None of these
C. Clap her hands
D. Develop a pincer grasp

29. At this age, the child can ideally play with:

A. All of these 
B. Hard plastic toys
C. Cloth books
D. Crayons

30. Nutrition-wise, you can advise the mother to:

1. Supplement breast milk wit citrus fruit juices
2. Wean the baby from bottle
3. Give iron supplements
4. Give wheat cereal

Situation 7: Children encounters difficulties/adjustment as they grow older. These questions pertain to the common problems encountered in the pre-school age.

31. A common problem in this age group is the experiences of nightmares. All of these are nursing measures, except:

1. Tell parents to provide pleasant activities before bedtime
2. Assure parents that this is normal during this period
3. Advise parents not  to let their child watch violent or horror T.V. shows
4. Advise parents to seek medical consult immediately

32. These are general tips for promoting optimal sleep patterns, except:

1. Provide a safe , quiet and comfortable sleeping quarters
2. Encourage child to sleep with the parents
3. Pressure  the child whenever a nightmare occurs
4. Schedule bedtime

33. The birth of a new sibling pose varied reactions to pre-school age children. They may go back to thumb sucking.
A. Regression                                       C. Sibling rivalry
B. Childhood maladjustment                 D. Progression

34. Problems associated by older children with the new baby’s arrival would involve which of these nursing interventions:

1. Let the older child be taken cared by surrogate
2. Assure child of parent’s affection; assure parents that this is normal
3. Advise medical consult and start medications
4. Tell parents to ignore the child, reassure parents that it is normal

35. In order to understand better the behavior of pre-school children, you recognize the major psychosocial conflict in this age group. As described by Erikson, this is:

1. Autonomy vs. shame
2. Industry vs. inferiority
3. Trust vs. mistrust
4. Initiative vs. Guilt

Situation 8: These are events significant to maternal and as they relate to fetal development.

36. Flor is pregnant with her third child. The first two are girls and the couple wants a boy so badly for her Chinese husband’s wish. But she asks the nurse. The best nurse’s explanation is:

1. Female has two x chromosomes
2. Male has an x and y chromosome
3. To have a girl each parent must contribute an x
4. To have a boy, mother must contribute an x and the father any chromosome thus the father determines child’s sex

 

1. 1,2,3,4                    C. 2,4
2. 3,4                          D. 1,2,4

37. A young couple in eager anticipation for their child’s birth asks, “When does the rudimentary foundation of the baby system such as a brain and a heart are formed.” The nurse answers:

1. Third month                                 C. First trimester
2. Second month                             D. First month

38. At the health center, a pregnant woman complains of nausea and vomiting in the morning. To minimize this discomfort, you advise the patient to eat before getting out of bed with one of these:

1. Ice tea                                             C. Ice milk
2. Buttered bread                                D. Crackers

39. Josefa, 2 months pregnant complains of nocturia. The nurse advised her to slow down on fluid intake after 6 p.m. and to sleep in which of these positions:

1. Side- lying position
2. Sitting up on a chair position
3. Supine position
4. Fowler’s position

40. Pressure created by the gravid uterus on the great veins located in the pelvis, possibly weakens the walls of some blood vessels resulting in one of these complications:

1. Urinary incontinence
2. Increased blood pressure
3. Varicose veins
4. Lose abdominal muscles

Situation 9: These situation pertain to menstrual cycle.

41. A menstrual cycle starts with the production of which of these Hormone:

1. Progesterone
2. Follicle-stimulating hormone
3. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
4. Luteinizing hormone

42. Initially in this phrase of the hormonal cycle, the estrogen levels are:

1. Low                                  C. At its peak
2. High                                 D. Negligible

43. Progesterone prepares the endometrium for implantation by increasing supplies of:

1. Glycogen and water
2. Arterial blood
3. Secretory glands
4. Amino Acid

 

1. 1,2,3                                   C. 1,2,4
2. 2,3,4                                   D. 1,3,4

44. A pituitary hormone responsible for ovulation is:

1. GnRH                                  C. HCG
2. FSH                                     D. LH

45. FSH stimulates the graafian follicle to mature during this follicular phase for which in a regular 28-day phase cycle this lasts for:

1. 14 days                                      C. 15 days
2. 24 days                                      D. 28 days

Situation 10: Newborn assessment:

46. Flatness or low displacement of the upper earlobes in the newborn would indicate which of these conditions:

1. Lung anomaly                                C. Heart anomaly
2. Liver anomaly                                D. Kidney anomaly

47. When a flashlight is held close to the scrotum of the newborn and transparency is noted, it confirms the diagnosis of:

1. Hyposadias                                        C. Epispadias
2. Hydroaele                                          D. Undescended testes

48. Mongolian spots are discolorations that appear in the sacral area of dark-skinned infants and:

1. Are linked to pathological conditions
2. Are indicative of parental abuse
3. Disappear in about a year
4.  Are managed with topical steroid

49. The infant weighed 7 lbs. and 8 oz. at birth. But the weight went down to 6 lbs. and 8 oz. upon discharge. The nurse informs the mother that this weight loss is:

1. Temporary
2. Due to inadequate nutrition
3. Normal
4. Danger signal

50. The best technique to assess jaundice in a newborn is through:

1. Applying pressure to infant’s soft area
2. Interpretation of laboratory data
3. Blanching on the forehead
4. Rubbing skin of forehead vigorously

Situation 11: Health statistics will provide the nurse vital information which she can use for good decision-making in relation to which specific health promotion/prevention activities will be needed by which group of people in the community:

51. In 1996, there were 15 cases of Acute Respiratory infection (ARI) in Barangay B while Barangay C had 20 cases. The total number of children in Barangay B is 300 and 200 in Barangay C. The percentage of children who had ARI is:

1. Higher in Barangay  C than in Barangay B
2. Not  comparable in Barangay B and C
3. The same in Barangay B and C
4. Higher in Barangay B than in Barangay C

52. From January 1 to 15, 1996, there were 8 cases of tetanus neonatorum admitted in San Lazaro Hospital. There were two deaths. What is the case fatality ratio of this disease:

1. 20%
2. 30%
3. 28%
4. 25%

53. The infant mortality rate is the number of children:

1. Dying for every thousands of the population
2. Dying from 0-5 year old in every thousand population
3. Dying in the first 4 weeks in every thousand children born alive  that year
4. Dying before 1 year old in every thousand children born alive that year

54. Which of the following measures the proportion of the population which exhibits a particular disease at a particular time and deals with both new and old cases:

1. Proportionate morbidity rate
2. Case fatality rate
3. Incidence ratio
4. Prevalence ratio

55. Which of the following measures that risk of dying from causes related to pregnancy, childbirth and puerperium:

1. Maternal mortality
2. Neonatal death rate
3. Fetal death rate
4. Infant mortality rate

Situation 12: The occupational Health Nurse (OHN) is aware of the basic concept of occupational health nursing and is responsible in preparing and implementing the occupational health program.

56. The following statement describes specifically occupational health nursing:

1. This involves prevention, recognition and treatment of injury and illness
2. All these statements
3. The application of nursing principles in conserving the health of workers in all occupation
4. This requires special skills in the field of health, education and counseling

57. The occupational Health Nursing concerned of the following, except:

1. Educating workers about their health
2. None of these
3. Appropriate and effective ways of promoting health workers
4. Planning for and administering health services

58. The nurse understands that the primary goal of the occupational health program is:

1. Curative care of workers/employees
2. Birth and death rates
3. Disease trends
4. Social environmental conditions

59. In order to establish priorities in planning and implementing the occupational health program, the nurse will need which of the following data:

1. Disease trends, birth and death rates and social environmental conditions
2. Birth and death rates
3. Disease trends
4. Social environmental conditions

60. In the provision of preventive care to workers, the nurse must be aware of biological hazards which is or are harmful to workers and their families such as:

1. Bacteria, fungi and insects
2. Noise
3. Toxic metals, poisonous gas fumes and dust
4. Stress

Situation 13: The following are questions that relates to Community Health Nursing.

61. A nurse is practicing community health nursing when:

1. She leads a support group for obese adolescents
2. She visits an old woman in her condominium to change her postsurgical dressing.
3. She is in a clinic instructing a couple about newborn  care
4. She is performing any of these activities

62. A public health nurse can say that she is beginning to achieve her goal of more optimal health for her community when:

1. People learn self-care
2. People become involved in determining health care policy
3. All these indicators are present
4. People assume responsibility for their own health

63. The emphasis of community health nursing is on:

1. Treatment of health problems
2. Preventing health problems and promoting optimum health
3. Identification and assessment of health problem
4. Illness end of the wellness-illness continuum

64. When the Public Health Nurse assess needs and plan health interventions for a group of people in coordination with other health professionals, she is demonstrating which of the following features of Community Health  Nursing (CHN):

1. CHN involves interdisciplinary collaboration
2. Use of epidemiologic approach is an essential part of the nurse practice.
3. CHN is oriented to populations
4. CHN promotes client’s participation in determining their own health

65. Which of the following statement about CHN is wrong?

1. CHN synthesizes public  health with nursing
2. CHN emphasizes health
3. Promoting clients autonomy is a responsibility of the Public Nursing
4. CHN make it unique contribution to health care not by the natures of its practice but where it is practiced

Situation 14: Family planning is one of the health care services provided by the nurse in the health centers, hospitals and private clinics.

66. The Philippine Family Program seeks to improve and maintain the following life- saving measures:

1. Proper spacing  of pregnancies
2. Proper timing of pregnancies
3. Fewer pregnancies
4. Giving special concern to mothers with lingering maternal illness

 

1. 1,3                                                  C. 1,4
2. 3,4                                                  D. 1,2,3,4

67. The major target of the Philippine Family Planning Program are women belonging to the high risk group which is or are the following:
 

1. Women under 20 or over 35 years old
2. All of these groups
3. Women suffering from certain medical conditions that contradict pregnancy
4. Women who have at least 4 deliveries

68. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding family planning:

1. Family Planning services should be made available to those who need them
2. It is the responsibility of every parent to determine whether to have children when  or how many
3. Family Planning is geared towards individual and family welfare
4. The ultimate goal of Family Planning is to prevent pregnancies

69. Edna is 40 years old Gr. V. She is 5 feet 2 inches tall, 98 lbs. and is a heavy smoker. Normally, she experience heavy menstrual period. In your latest home visit, she ask about family planning methods. The use of pills cannot be recommended because:
 

1. She is 40 years old
2. She weighs only 98 lbs.
3. She is a heavy smoker
4. Her menstrual periods are heavy

 

1. 2,4                                        C. 1,2
2. 2,3                                        D. 1,3

70. In the implementation of the national family planning program, the government assumes the role of a:
 

1. Decision-maker in the practice of the family planning methods
2. Regulator
3. Facilitator
4. Dictator

Situation 15: Being the public health nurse, you provide community health nursing to the family.

71. The nurse performs the following to determine the family’s nursing problems/needs:

1. Goal setting
2. Family health care plan formulation
3. Assessment
4. Evaluation

72. The sources of information about the family is or are the following:

1. Interview results with members of the family
2. Family folder
3. Actual observation of family situation
4. All these sources of information

73. The family presents several problems. Which of the following criteria is considered in determining the priority health problem:

1. Expected consequences of the problem
2. Cooperation and support of the family
3. Involvement of the members of the family in the problem
4. Modifiability of the problem

74. The following is an important basis in preparing the family health care plan:

1. Needs and problems gathered and recognized by the nurse herself
2. Data gathered from the health center
3. Needs an problems as seen and accepted by the family
4. Needs as expected by the midwife assigned in the area where the family resides

75. The family health care plan includes the following components listed in sequence:

1. Objectives, statement of the problems, intervention and evaluation
2. Objective, intervention, evaluation and statement and statement of problems
3. Evaluation, statement of problems, objectives and intervention
4. Statement of problems, objectives, intervention and evaluation

Situation 16: In the municipality where you are assigned, the people have poor hygiene practices, poor environmental sanitation, and poor nutrition. Their educational levels are low, Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is low compared to the national IMR.

76. In this municipality the nursing health care plan should be focused on:

1. Rehabilitative  services
2. All these services
3. Health promotion and disease prevention
4. Curative services

77. In order to determine what specific health teachings would be appropriate for the people of this municipality, which of the following is the best methods to use:

1. Interview of the midwifes
2. Review of the records and reports
3. Study of knowledge, attitudes and practices of the people
4. Review of the health statistics

78. Barangay C, in this municipality have poor hygienic practices and poor environmental condition. These are contributing factors to which of the following disease conditions:

1. Influenza                                             C. Parasitism
2. Hepatitis B                                          D. Measles

79. For Barangay C. you therefore intend to conduct health education sessions for a group of mothers. Which of the following topics for discussion will be given least priority:

1. Proper selection and preparing of food
2. Hand washing before preparing food
3. Cutting children’s fingernails short
4. Overcrowding and its effects

80. You assisted the midwife in the formulating the objectives of the plan of care for Barangay C. Which of the following is a well –stated objective:

1. To reduce the number of the children with ascariasis by the end of 2 years
2. To protect the water sources from pollution
3. To conduct health teachings on proper nutrition
4. To reduce the number of underweight children by 10%

81. The delivery of basic health services was devolved to the local government units. The legal basis for this is embodied in:

A. R.A 7305
B. Executive Order No. 119
C. RA 7160
D. Executive Order No. 266


82. Local health boards were established at the provincial, city and municipal levels. At the municipal level, the chairman of the board is the:
 

1. Rural  Health  Physician
2. Public Health Physician
3. Municipality Mayor
4. Chairman of the Committee on Health

83. Certain health policies/strategies serve as guidelines in the delivery of services. Which of these is incorrect:

1. Growth monitoring chart is a tool recommended for the assessment and recording of the child’s health condition

 

2. Voluntary blood donation shall be promoted through organization of walking blood banks in rural areas

 

3. Public sector is encouraged to work  separately from the private sector for effective utilization of resources

 

4. Traditional birth attendants are trained and allowed to provide prenatal care to mothers

84. Under the present system, the Local Government Units shall be responsible for which of the following:

1. Operation and maintenance of health facilities
2. All these activities
3. Implementation of health programs/projects
4. Delivery of health services

85. With the present system, family planning programs at the municipal barangay levels are managed by:

1. Non-government organizations
2. Local Government Units
3. All these units/organizations are managing family planning programs
4. Other government organizations.

Situations 18: Alma, 24 years old medical student was admitted in the medical ward with the complaint of severe right iliac pain, nausea and vomiting:

86. Alma’s fear is that she will be absent from her classes for several days. The reassurance that you can give to minimize her anxiety is to:

1. Observe CBR for one week
2. Follow the doctor’s order
3. Follow the health teaching of her nurse
4. Observe BR only for three days

87. To ensure early recovery, what should you include in your nursing care plan?

1. Allow her to observe CBR
2. Allow her to observe BR only after 3 days
3. Let her ambulate a day after surgery
4. Allow her to have a shower a day after the surgery

88. You are her nurse. Your nursing measure to prevent complication of pneumonia is:

1. Turn her sides every one and half hours
2. Assist her in passive exercise
3. Turn her to other sides every three hours
4. Encourage deep breathing

89. You assess Alma of the presence of pneumonia. The following are the symptoms of pneumonia, except:

1. Tactile remitus is increased over the affected area
2. Crackling sounds are heard over the affected area
3. Percussion is dulled over the affected area
4. Expansion of the chest wall are equal during inspirations

90. In determining the antibiotic that Alma will respond best, what test should be prescribed:

1. Rubin’s test
2. Culture and Sensitivity Test
3. Widal’s test
4. Schick’s test

Situation 19: Stella, a dressmaker has Raynaud’s disease.

91. Her nurse should let her know that her conditions may improve and response to:

1. Calm emotional environment
2. Cool climate
3. Warm weather
4. Hectic schedule

92. As head nurse, you have to emphasize to her in your counseling and health teaching to avoid:

1. Smoking                                                  C. Weight loss
2. Alcohol beverages                                  D. Coffee and tea

93. With her ailment, which of these activities is contraindicated:

1. Swimming  in cold water
2. Dancing
3. Driving
4. Horse riding

94. An obese client with peripheral vascular disease, diet should contain all of the following, except:

1. Minimal weight reduction
2. Rapid weight reduction
3. Increase fat intake
4. Increase carbohydrate intake

95. Stella underwent peripheral arterial bypass graft, the most vital nursing management is to:

1. Measure intake and output
2. Apply elastic bandage
3. Take pedal pulse
4. Medicate for incisional pain

Situation 20: As a psychiatric nurse, Mrs. Sanchez is equipped with the necessary knowledge in psychiatric nursing.

96. As a counselor, the nurse performs one of the following task:

1. Encourage the client to express her feelings and concerns
2. Helps client learn a dance or song to enable her to participate actively in recreational activities
3. Helps the client participate actively in group activities
4. Assist the client setting  limits in her behavior

97. Freud stresses that the function of the ego is:

1. Distinguishes between things in the mind and things in the external world
2. Moral arm of the personally, serifs for perfection rather than pleasure
3. Reservoir of instincts and source of all drives
4. Controls the physical needs and instincts

98. A hallucination is an alteration of:

1. Communication                       C. Affect
2.  Perception                              D. Memory

99. This type of relationship between the nurse and the patient founded on the patient’s problem:

1. Therapeutic                              C. Intimate
2. Platonic                                     D. Social

100. The interpersonal model of psychiatric mental health practice is described as:

1. Persons need  security and satisfaction which result  from interpersonal relationships
2. Individuals are motivated by unconscious desires and conflicts
3. Biological, psychological, social and environmental factors, influence personality development throughout the life cycle
4. Behavioral disruptions result from a biological disease

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